definite-integral

Question: If $g(1)=g(2)$, then $\int_{1}^{2}{{{\left[ fg(x) \right]}^{-1}}}f'\{g(x)\}\ g'(x)\ dx$is equal to



1) 1
2) 2
3) 0
4) None of these
Solution: Explanation: No Explanation
Fundamental definite integration Definite integration by substitution

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